Hypothetical case (kinda):
You have a male dog with a top notch HT title (MH or HRCH or MHR). He has 5 FT or HT titled dogs in the first two generations of his ancestors, and a large number of titled dogs in the rest of the pedigree.
His hips are OFA "good", elbows are "normal", CERF is "clear".
A fella calls you up, wanting to know if you would use your dog as a stud for his female. His dog has no titles, and is a housepet. She has 3 FT or HT titled dogs in her first two generations of ancestors, she also has quite a few titled dogs in the rest of her pedigree. . Her hips are OFA "excellent", elbows are "normal", CERF is "clear" and she is negative for brucellosis.
There is currently a glut of Labrador puppies on the market, and the price is low -- However, both of these dogs point, and there is a waiting list for PL puppies. In the part of the country where these puppies would be born, they would probably sell for $600 or more.
If this were your male dog, would you breed him to this female?